Question Number 132626 by mohammad17 last updated on 15/Feb/21
$${prove}\:{that}\:{Log}\left({z}_{\mathrm{1}} {z}_{\mathrm{2}} \right)={Logz}_{\mathrm{1}} +{Logz}_{\mathrm{2}} \\ $$ $${with}\:{condition}\:−\pi<{Argz}_{\mathrm{1}} +{Argz}_{\mathrm{2}} <\pi \\ $$
Commented bymohammad17 last updated on 16/Feb/21
$$????? \\ $$
Answered by guyyy last updated on 20/Feb/21
