Question Number 11565 by Nayon last updated on 28/Mar/17 | ||
$${if}\:\frac{{dy}}{{dx}}={p}\:\:,{then}\:{why}\:{dy}={pdx}? \\ $$ | ||
Answered by mrW1 last updated on 28/Mar/17 | ||
$${if}\:\frac{{dy}}{{dx}}={p}\Rightarrow{y}={px} \\ $$$$\Rightarrow{dy}={pdx} \\ $$ | ||