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Question Number 32732 by caravan msup abdo. last updated on 31/Mar/18
$${give}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \:\:\frac{\left({lnx}\right)^{{p}} }{\mathrm{1}−{x}}\:{dx}\:{at}\:{form}\:{of}\:{seriewith} \\ $$$${p}\geqslant\mathrm{2}\:. \\ $$