Question Number 215185 by MrGaster last updated on 31/Dec/24
$$\int_{−\infty} ^{\infty} \frac{\mathrm{exp}\left(\frac{{ax}}{\mathrm{1}+{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }\right)\mathrm{exp}\left(\frac{{a}}{\mathrm{1}+{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }\right)}{\mathrm{1}+{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }{dx},{a}>\mathrm{0} \\ $$
Answered by JamesZhou last updated on 01/Jan/25
