Question Number 166296 by mathlove last updated on 18/Feb/22
$$\left(\mathrm{cos}\:{x}\right)^{\mathrm{2022}} −\left(\mathrm{sin}\:{x}\right)^{\mathrm{2022}} =\mathrm{1} \\ $$$${x}=? \\ $$
Commented by mkam last updated on 18/Feb/22
$$\boldsymbol{{x}}\:=\:\boldsymbol{{n}\pi}\:\forall\:\boldsymbol{{n}}\:\in\:\boldsymbol{{Z}}\: \\ $$
Commented by mathlove last updated on 19/Feb/22
$${How}? \\ $$