Question Number 166552 by cortano1 last updated on 22/Feb/22 | ||
$$\:\:\:\:\int_{−\infty} ^{\infty} \mathrm{cos}\:\left(\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}\pi\mathrm{x}\left(\mathrm{x}+\mathrm{1}\right)\right)\:\mathrm{sin}\:\left(\pi\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right)\:\mathrm{dx}\:=? \\ $$ | ||