Question Number 160411 by nadovic last updated on 29/Nov/21 | ||
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$$\:\:\mathrm{Show}\:\mathrm{that}\:\:\mathrm{tan}\:\mathrm{58}°\mathrm{tan}\:\mathrm{32}°\:=\:\mathrm{1} \\ $$ | ||
Answered by TheSupreme last updated on 29/Nov/21 | ||
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$${tan}\left(\alpha\right){tan}\left(\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{2}}−\alpha\right)={tan}\left(\alpha\right){cotan}\left(\alpha\right)=\mathrm{1} \\ $$$$ \\ $$ | ||