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Question Number 91217 by mhmd last updated on 28/Apr/20

Commented by Prithwish Sen 1 last updated on 28/Apr/20

∫_0 ^(nπ) ∣cosx∣dx = n∫_0 ^𝛑 ∣cosx∣dx = n[∫_0 ^(𝛑/2) cosxdx+∫_(𝛑/2) ^𝛑 (−cosx)dx]  = 2n      n=posituve integer.  please check

0nπcosxdx=n0πcosxdx=n[0π2cosxdx+π2π(cosx)dx]=2nn=posituveinteger.pleasecheck

Commented by MJS last updated on 28/Apr/20

2n  ∫_0 ^(π/2) ∣cos x∣dx=∫_0 ^(π/2) cos x dx=1  ⇒ the area beneath ∣cos x∣ equals 1 for each  interval [((kπ)/2); (((k+1)π)/2)]; k∈Z ⇒ the area in each  interval [kπ; (k+1)π]; k∈Z equals 2. we have  n intervals ⇒ answer is 2n

2nπ20cosxdx=π20cosxdx=1theareabeneathcosxequals1foreachinterval[kπ2;(k+1)π2];kZtheareaineachinterval[kπ;(k+1)π];kZequals2.wehavenintervalsansweris2n

Commented by abdomathmax last updated on 28/Apr/20

∫_0 ^(nπ) ∣codx∣dx =Σ_(k=0) ^(n−1)  ∫_(kπ) ^((k+1)π)   ∣cosx∣dx  (ch  x=kπ +t  =Σ_(k=0) ^(n−1)   ∫_0 ^π  ∣(−1)^k  cost∣dt =Σ_(k=0) ^(n−1)  ∫_0 ^π ∣cost∣dt  but ∫_0 ^π  ∣cost∣dt =∫_0 ^(π/2)  cost dt −∫_(π/2) ^π  cost dt  =1−(−1) =2 ⇒∫_0 ^(nπ)  ∣cosx∣dx =2Σ_(k=0) ^(n−1) (1)  =2n

0nπcodxdx=k=0n1kπ(k+1)πcosxdx(chx=kπ+t=k=0n10π(1)kcostdt=k=0n10πcostdtbut0πcostdt=0π2costdtπ2πcostdt=1(1)=20nπcosxdx=2k=0n1(1)=2n

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