Question Number 210542 by SANOGO last updated on 12/Aug/24 | ||
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Commented by Rasheed.Sindhi last updated on 12/Aug/24 | ||
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$${x}+{y}+{z}=\mathrm{1}\Rightarrow\left({x}+{y}+{z}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} =\mathrm{1} \\ $$ | ||
Commented by Frix last updated on 12/Aug/24 | ||
Answered by JuniorKepler last updated on 12/Aug/24 | ||
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$${since}\:\left({x}\:+\:{y}\:+{z}\right)\:=\:\mathrm{1} \\ $$$$\left({x}\:+\:{y}\:+{z}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} \:=\:\mathrm{1}^{\mathrm{2}} \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:=\:\mathrm{1} \\ $$ | ||