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Question Number 205690 by Lindemann last updated on 27/Mar/24
Commented by lepuissantcedricjunior last updated on 27/Mar/24
$$\boldsymbol{{C}}_{\mathrm{41}} ^{\mathrm{2}} =\frac{\mathrm{41}!}{\mathrm{2}!\mathrm{39}!}=\frac{\mathrm{41}×\mathrm{40}}{\mathrm{2}!}=\mathrm{820} \\ $$
Commented by MM42 last updated on 27/Mar/24
$${C}_{\mathrm{41}} ^{\mathrm{2}} =\frac{\mathrm{41}!}{\mathrm{39}!\mathrm{2}!}=\mathrm{820}\:\checkmark \\ $$
Commented by MM42 last updated on 27/Mar/24
$${no} \\ $$$${it}\:{was}\:{mentioned}\:{to}\:{correct} \\ $$$${the}\:{formula} \\ $$