Question Number 199956 by cortano12 last updated on 11/Nov/23
Answered by Frix last updated on 11/Nov/23
$$\left(\mathrm{1}\right)\:\Rightarrow\:{x}={y}\left({y}^{\mathrm{2}} +{y}+\mathrm{2}\right)\wedge{y}>\mathrm{0} \\ $$$$\left(\mathrm{2}\right)\:\Rightarrow\:\frac{{x}}{{y}}=\mathrm{4}\vee\frac{{x}}{{y}}=\mathrm{8} \\ $$$$\Rightarrow \\ $$$${x}=\mathrm{4}\wedge{y}=\mathrm{1}\:\vee\:{x}=\mathrm{16}\wedge{y}=\mathrm{2} \\ $$