Question and Answers Forum

All Questions      Topic List

Logarithms Questions

Previous in All Question      Next in All Question      

Previous in Logarithms      Next in Logarithms      

Question Number 159157 by physicstutes last updated on 13/Nov/21

Answered by mr W last updated on 13/Nov/21

Commented by mr W last updated on 13/Nov/21

let AA′=1  ⇒BB′=((50)/(450))×1=(1/9)  ⇒CC′=BB′=(1/9)  ⇒DD′=((75)/(300+75))×(1/9)=(1/(45))  P×1=9×(1/(45))  ⇒P=(1/5) KN  M_D =(1/5)×(450+50+300)  =160 KNmm=160 Nm

$${let}\:{AA}'=\mathrm{1} \\ $$$$\Rightarrow{BB}'=\frac{\mathrm{50}}{\mathrm{450}}×\mathrm{1}=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{9}} \\ $$$$\Rightarrow{CC}'={BB}'=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{9}} \\ $$$$\Rightarrow{DD}'=\frac{\mathrm{75}}{\mathrm{300}+\mathrm{75}}×\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{9}}=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{45}} \\ $$$${P}×\mathrm{1}=\mathrm{9}×\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{45}} \\ $$$$\Rightarrow{P}=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{5}}\:{KN} \\ $$$${M}_{{D}} =\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{5}}×\left(\mathrm{450}+\mathrm{50}+\mathrm{300}\right) \\ $$$$=\mathrm{160}\:{KNmm}=\mathrm{160}\:{Nm} \\ $$

Commented by Tawa11 last updated on 13/Nov/21

Great sir.

$$\mathrm{Great}\:\mathrm{sir}. \\ $$

Terms of Service

Privacy Policy

Contact: info@tinkutara.com