Question Number 155735 by BHOOPENDRA last updated on 04/Oct/21 | ||
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Answered by ajfour last updated on 04/Oct/21 | ||
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Commented by ajfour last updated on 04/Oct/21 | ||
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$${x}^{\mathrm{2}} +\left({y}−\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} =\mathrm{1}^{\mathrm{2}} +\left(\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} \\ $$$$\Rightarrow\:{x}^{\mathrm{2}} +{y}^{\mathrm{2}} −{y}−\mathrm{1}=\mathrm{0} \\ $$ | ||
Commented by BHOOPENDRA last updated on 04/Oct/21 | ||
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$${nice}\:{sir} \\ $$ | ||
Commented by BHOOPENDRA last updated on 04/Oct/21 | ||
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$${which}\:{option}\:{is}\:{correct}\:? \\ $$ | ||