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Question Number 34410 by Tinkutara last updated on 05/May/18
$${Prove}\:{that}\:\frac{\left({n}^{\mathrm{2}} \right)!}{\left({n}!\right)^{{n}+\mathrm{1}} }\:{is}\:{always}\:{an}\:{integer} \\ $$$${for}\:{n}\in{N}. \\ $$