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Question Number 13004 by Nayon last updated on 10/May/17
$${If}\:\int{f}\left({x}\right){dx}={g}\left({x}\right)\:,{then}\:{why} \\ $$$$\int_{{b}} ^{{a}} {f}\left({x}\right){dx}={g}\left({a}\right)−{g}\left({b}\right)??? \\ $$
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