Question Number 145319 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 04/Jul/21 | ||
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$$\:\:\:\:\: \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:#\:\:\mathrm{Calculus}# \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\underset{{n}=\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\sum}}\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{n}!\:+\:\left({n}\:+\:\mathrm{1}\:\right)!}\:=? \\ $$$$ \\ $$ | ||
Answered by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 04/Jul/21 | ||
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$$\underset{{n}=\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\sum}}\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{n}!\left({n}+\mathrm{2}\right)} \\ $$$$=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \underset{{n}=\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\sum}}\frac{{x}^{{n}+\mathrm{1}} }{{n}!}{dx}=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} {xe}^{{x}} {dx}=\left[\left({x}−\mathrm{1}\right){e}^{{x}} \right]_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} =\mathrm{1} \\ $$ | ||
Commented by mnjuly1970 last updated on 04/Jul/21 | ||
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$$\:\mathrm{thanks}\:\mathrm{alot}... \\ $$ | ||