| Question.
Suppose that we consider the expression (1+(1/n))^n .
as n→∞ the sequence converges to a unique
irrational constant denoted by ′′e′′
def. lim_(n→∞) (1+(1/n))^n =e
Let Sequence A_h =(1+(1/h))^h , h>1
Let (1, 1+(1/n) , 1+(1/n) , .... , +1+(1/n)_( _(n times) ) )
((1+n(1+(1/n)))/(n+1))>(1+(1/n))^(n/(n+1)) ⇒1+(1/(n+1))>(1+(1/n))^(n/(n+1)) (AM>GM )
∴ A_n <A_(n+1)
A_n is monotonic increase
by the Bernoulli Inequality 1+nx<(1+x)^n
1+n∙(1/n)<(1+(1/n))^n and
(1+(1/n))^n =1+n((1/n))+((n(n−1))/(2!))((1/n))^2 +...<1+1+(1/2)+((1/2))^2 +((1/2))^3 ....=3
∴ (1+(1/n))^n bounded above 3
2<(1+(1/n))^n <3
I can accept the logic so far
but how can we be absolutely certain
that the limit ′′lim_(n→∞) (1+(1/n))^n converges to that specific value
e=2.7182818284590452.......
After all the interval between 2 and 3 is densely packed with
infinitely many rational and irrational numbers.
why must it be that particular one.....???
We have shown two properties first that the sequence is
monotonically increasing and
second that it is bounded both above and below.
However these properties alone do not tell us the
exact value of the limit such as 2.7182818284590452....
To confirm that
the limit is indeed the irrational number ′′e′′ is the only way to
directly calculate the Σ_(h=0) ^∞ (1/(h!)) ??
Furthermore is it sufficient to justify that this series
convergs to ′′e′′ by finding a sufficiently large ′′N′′
for any arbitary positive 𝛆>0 such that the difference is
less than 𝛆
“ for all 𝛆>0 Exist N∈N s.t. N<n ⇒ ∣A_n −L∣<𝛆”
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