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Question Number 129255 by Adel last updated on 14/Jan/21
$$\mathrm{x}\left(\mathrm{1}−\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{x}}\right)^{\mathrm{x}} =? \\ $$
Commented by bemath last updated on 14/Jan/21
$$\mathrm{maclaurien}\:\mathrm{series} \\ $$
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