Question Number 138810 by mathdanisur last updated on 18/Apr/21
$$\underset{\:\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\:\pi/\mathrm{2}} {\int}}\frac{{xsin}\left({x}\right)}{\mathrm{1}−{cosx}}\centerdot{log}\left(\mathrm{1}+{cosx}\right){dx}=? \\ $$
Answered by phanphuoc last updated on 18/Apr/21
$${u}={x},{dv}={ln}\left(\mathrm{1}+{cosx}\right){dcosx}/\left(\mathrm{1}−{cosx}\right) \\ $$
Commented by mathdanisur last updated on 18/Apr/21
$${Sir},\:{the}\:{exact}\:{solution} \\ $$
Commented by mathdanisur last updated on 21/Apr/21
$${please}\:{sir}\:{continued} \\ $$