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Question Number 95396 by ~blr237~ last updated on 25/May/20

     ∫_0 ^∞  e^(−x^2 −(1/x^2 )) dx = ((√π)/(2e^2 ))

$$\:\:\: \\ $$$$\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \:{e}^{−{x}^{\mathrm{2}} −\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }} {dx}\:=\:\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{\mathrm{2}{e}^{\mathrm{2}} }\:\: \\ $$$$\: \\ $$

Commented by mathmax by abdo last updated on 26/May/20

this integral is solved see the platform

$$\mathrm{this}\:\mathrm{integral}\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{solved}\:\mathrm{see}\:\mathrm{the}\:\mathrm{platform} \\ $$

Commented by prakash jain last updated on 03/Jul/20


$$\mathrm{Q65676} \\ $$

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