Question Number 139975 by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 02/May/21 | ||
$$\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \left({cos}\left({x}\right)−\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\left(\mathrm{1}+{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right)}\right)\frac{{dx}}{{x}}=−\gamma \\ $$ | ||
Answered by Kamel last updated on 02/May/21 | ||
Commented by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 03/May/21 | ||
$${Thanks}\:{sir} \\ $$ | ||
Answered by mnjuly1970 last updated on 03/May/21 | ||
Commented by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 03/May/21 | ||
$${Thanks}\:{sir}! \\ $$ | ||
Commented by mnjuly1970 last updated on 04/May/21 | ||
$$\:\:\:\:{you}\:{are}\:{welcom}... \\ $$ | ||