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Question Number 220891 by Nicholas666 last updated on 20/May/25 | ||
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$$ \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\int\int\int_{\left[\mathrm{0},\infty\right]^{\:\mathrm{3}} } \:\frac{{e}^{−\left({x}\:+\:{y}\:+\:{z}\:\right)} }{\mathrm{1}\:+\:{xyz}}\:{dxdydz} \\ $$$$ \\ $$ | ||
Answered by breniam last updated on 20/May/25 | ||
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$$=\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\mathrm{1}} {\int}}\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}{e}^{−{z}} \underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}{e}^{−{y}} \underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}{w}^{{xyz}} {e}^{−{x}} \mathrm{d}{x}\mathrm{d}{y}\mathrm{d}{z}\mathrm{d}{w}= \\ $$$$=\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\mathrm{1}} {\int}}\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}{e}^{−{z}} \underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}{e}^{−{y}} \underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}\left(\frac{{w}^{{yz}} }{{e}}\right)^{{x}} \mathrm{d}{x}\mathrm{d}{y}\mathrm{d}{z}\mathrm{d}{w}= \\ $$$$−\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\mathrm{1}} {\int}}\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}{e}^{−{z}} \underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}{e}^{−{y}} \mathrm{ln}\left(\frac{{w}^{{yz}} }{{e}}\right)\mathrm{d}{y}\mathrm{d}{z}\mathrm{d}{w}= \\ $$$$\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\mathrm{1}} {\int}}\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}{e}^{−{z}} \left[\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}{e}^{−{y}} \mathrm{d}{y}−{z}\mathrm{ln}\left({w}\right)\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}{ye}^{−{y}} \mathrm{d}{y}\right]\mathrm{d}{z}\mathrm{d}{w}= \\ $$$$\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\mathrm{1}} {\int}}\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}{e}^{−{z}} \left[\mathrm{1}−{z}\mathrm{ln}\left({w}\right)\right]\mathrm{d}{z}\mathrm{d}{w}=\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\mathrm{1}} {\int}}\left[\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}{e}^{−{z}} \mathrm{d}{z}−\mathrm{ln}\left({w}\right)\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\infty} {\int}}{ze}^{−{z}} \mathrm{d}{z}\right]\mathrm{d}{w}= \\ $$$$\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\mathrm{1}} {\int}}\left[\mathrm{1}−\mathrm{ln}\left({w}\right)\right]\mathrm{d}{w}=\mathrm{1}−\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\mathrm{1}} {\int}}{w}'\mathrm{ln}\left({w}\right)\mathrm{d}{w}=\mathrm{1}+\underset{\mathrm{0}} {\overset{\mathrm{1}} {\int}}\mathrm{d}{w}=\mathrm{2} \\ $$ | ||