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Question Number 125939 by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 15/Dec/20

∫_0 ^1 ((cos2x−tanx.cot(tanx))/(sin2x−tan(tanx)log(cos^2 x)))dx

$$\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \frac{{cos}\mathrm{2}{x}−{tanx}.{cot}\left({tanx}\right)}{{sin}\mathrm{2}{x}−{tan}\left({tanx}\right){log}\left({cos}^{\mathrm{2}} {x}\right)}{dx} \\ $$$$ \\ $$

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