| Q.
lim lim_(x→a y→b) A_(m,n) =L
Suppose a double sequence A_(m,n) converges to L.
According to the
Moore-Osgood Theorem the order of limits can be interchanged
if at least one direction converges uniformly.
I find this counterintuitve
I don′t understand why uniform convergence in
just one direction is sufficient to guarantee the validity of
switching the limits.
It would be much easier to accept if uniform
convergence were required in both directions.
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